vault backup: 2025-04-14 12:19:53
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@ -99,7 +99,6 @@ So, (p', q') ∈ ∼
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**Theorem:** For every bisimulation S, it holds that S ⊆ ∼.
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*Proof:*
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Let (p,q) ∈ S. Then, there exists a bisimulation that contains the pair (p, q); thus, (p, q) ∈ ∼.
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## La parte difficile
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